Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2021-2022 (Có đáp án + File nghe)
PART TWO: PHONETICS (0.5 POINT)
I. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (0.2 point)
1. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice
2. A. inclusion B. decision C. compulsion D. provision.
II. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. (0.3 point)
3. A. impressive B. commercial C. profession D. altitude
4. A. museum B. cathedral C. skyscraper D. apartment
5. A. women B. labour C. canoe D. children
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (5.5 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers (A, B, C, or D) on the answer sheet. (2.0 points)
1. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico _______.
A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence
2. I was so exhausted that I went out like _______.
A. a light B. a candle C. a baby D. a log
3. It’s a shame to fall out so badly with your own ________.
A. heart to heart B. flesh and blood C. heart and soul D. skin and bone
4. The assistant suggested ________the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back
C. we will come back D. we come back
5. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing
C. contains D. that contain
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Nội dung text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 9 - Năm học 2021-2022 (Có đáp án + File nghe)
- UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 9 ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (Đề thi có 08 trang) Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi Họ và tên thí sinh: Số báo danh PART ONE: LISTENING (4.0 POINTS) I. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about a new sport center. For each question, fill in the missing information in the number of spaces. (2.0 points) (Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes). New Sports Centre It opens on (1) ___. The party will be on (2) ___. It is opposite (3) ___. The car park entrance is in (4) ___. It costs (5) ___ per week to be a member. You can pay for a (6) ___ year to save money. You need to (7) ___ and suitable clothes A (8) ___ is provided. (9) ___ are given at 5.30 each day. Check on the (10) ___ to get more information. II. Listen to the conversation between a caller and receptionist and choose the correct answer by circling A, B, C or D. (1.0 point) 1. Which was NOT mentioned as part of the purpose of the English Language Center? A. to help international students prepare to enter institutions of higher learning B. to teach students how to use English at work C. to provide work opportunities for graduating students in the community D. to help students use English in their daily life. 2. What is one course taught at the English Language Center? A. business English B. US Culture C. TOEFL D. IELTS 3. If the Fall semester begins on August 29th, by what date should one apply to the program? A. May 29th B. June 29th C. July 29th D. April 29th 4. What is the tuition for a full-time student? A. $2013 B. $2300 C. $2030 D. $2033 5. Which one was NOT mentioned as part of the application packet a student must send to the center? A. sponsorship form B. bank statement C. application fee D. high school transcripts Trang 1/ 8
- III. Listen to the record and decide if the following sentences are true (T) or false (F). (1.0 point) 1. The man and woman are close friends. 2. Andrew found out about his new diet through unwanted mail. 3. The cost of the Wafu Diet is $419. 4. From the conversation, we can infer that Andrew hasn’t gone running yet. 5. The woman advised the man to eat a little late at night. PART TWO: PHONETICS (0.5 POINT) I. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (0.2 point) 1. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice 2. A. inclusion B. decision C. compulsion D. provision. II. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. (0.3 point) 3. A. impressive B. commercial C. profession D. altitude 4. A. museum B. cathedral C. skyscraper D. apartment 5. A. women B. labour C. canoe D. children PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (5.5 POINTS) I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers (A, B, C, or D) on the answer sheet. (2.0 points) 1. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico ___. A. her permanent residence was B. where her permanent residence C. permanent residence for her D. her permanent residence 2. I was so exhausted that I went out like ___. A. a light B. a candle C. a baby D. a log 3. It’s a shame to fall out so badly with your own ___. A. heart to heart B. flesh and blood C. heart and soul D. skin and bone 4. The assistant suggested ___the next day when the manager would be there. A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we come back 5. Drinking water ___ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth. A. containing B. in which containing C. contains D. that contain 6. This ticket ___ one person to the show A. permits B. enters C. delivers D. admits 7. Van Gogh suffered from depression ___ by overwork and ill-health. A. brought on B. coming about C. taken up D. put through 8. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ___. A. otherwise B. therefore C. immediately D. nevertheless 9. ___ a scholarship, I entered the unknown territory of private education. Trang 2/ 8
- A. To award B. Awarding C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded 10. At the café, Peter is talking to Ann. Peter: “Do you mind if I take a seat?” Ann: “___” A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please C. No I mind D. Yes, do as you please 11. Trang An Landscape Complex is renowned for its diverse ecosystem, unique natural beauty and ___characteristics. A. environmental B. ecological C. geology D. geological 12. He was turned down for the job because he is ___. A. disqualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification 13. After years of neglect there was a huge ___ program to return the city to its former glory. A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment 14. Everybody was pleased with the ___. A. vegetable delicious hot soup B. hot delicious vegetable soup C. delicious hot vegetable soup D. delicious vegetable hot soup 15. ___ in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing. A. Frost is produced B. Frost produces C. What produces frost D. What is frost produced 16. Please don’t ___ a word of this to any one else, it’s highly confidential. A. speak B. breathe C. mutter D. pass 17. They go to the seaside___they should be disturbed by the noise of the city. A. in order that B. due to the fact that C. since D. lest 18. ___, the disaster would not have happened. A. Were you to obey the orders B. You had obeyed the orders C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders 19. Could you lend me some money to ___ me over to the end of the month? A. hand B. tide C. get D. make 20. Two friends, Edward and Evan, are talking about their last driving test. Select the most suitable response to complete the exchange. Edward: “I failed my driving test yesterday.” Evan: “___” A. You should try your hand at it. B. I wish that we could talk about it. C. Oh well. You’re in good company. D. You want to pass the test. Dream on. II. Give the correct tense/ form of the given verb in each of the following questions to complete the sentences. (2.0 points) 1. I’m sure you (forget) ___ me by the time I (be) ___ back in five years. Trang 3/ 8
- 2. The speed limit is 30 miles an hour but Tom (drive) ___ at 50 miles at that time. He (not drive) ___ so fast. 3. He is planning (complete) ___ all his coursework by next week. 4. I don’t mind her (appoint) ___ above me. 5. There was a cold wind (blow) ___ in our faces when we were in the field. 6. I was tired when I got home. I (work) ___ all day 7. It is particularly vital that accurate records (keep) ___ when you are self- employed. 8. They (have) ___ English from nine to ten in this room. Don’t let anyone disturb them then. III. Give the correct form of the word in each bracket and write your answers on the answer sheet. (1.0 point) 1. Despite his ___ with that type of vehicle, he had an accident because a cat made him crash into a tree. FAMILIAR 2. The ___ of the education system in Finland is famous all around Europe. EFFICIENT 3. His latest ___ is a book of verse on the theme of relationships. PUBLISH 4. Quite ___ I got some useful information at the party. INCIDENT 5. Reduction in government spending will ___ further cuts in public services. NECESSARY 6. An investigation has been under way for several days into the ___ of a thirteen- year-old boy. APPEAR 7. ___ is a lifelong responsibility. FATHER 8. They all show great ___ to their singing and go to choir practice twice a week. COMMIT 9. Even if you’re good at a game, you shouldn’t be ___. CONFIDENCE 10. The sun and the moon are often ___ in poetry. PERSON IV. Find and correct ONE error in each of the following questions. (0.5 point) 1. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more 1. carefully, they would have realized that the second was superior than ___ the first. 2. Major advertising companies have traditionally volunteered its 2. time to public service accounts. ___ 3. We are confident that we will be possible to persuade our friends 3. to keep the school clean. ___ 4. The pilot and the crew divided the life preservatives among the 4. twenty frantic passengers. ___ 5. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the 5. cultivation of rice have been impeded by recurrent drought. ___ Trang 4/ 8
- PART FOUR: READING (5.0 POINTS) I. Read the text below and choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. (1.0 point) ENVIRONMENTAL CONCERNS Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life, (1) ___ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the world's resources while half of the world's population do so (2) ___ to stay alive, we are rapidly destroying the lonely resource we have by (3) ___ all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (4) ___ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (5) ___ We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. (6) ___, the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (7) ___increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth's (8) ___ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (9) ___ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will last (10)___. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. 1. A. still B. despite C. yet D. although 2. A. for B. just C. already D. entirely 3. A. what B. that C. which D. then 4. A. sooner B. rather C. either D. neither 5. A. completely B. quite C. greatly D. utterly 6. A. As a result B. Moreover C. However D. Notwithstanding 7. A. having B. doing C. taking D. making 8. A. natural B. real C. living D. genuine 9. A. stay B. keep C. maintain D. hold 10. A. indefinitely B. definitely C. infinitely D. inflexibly II. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each of the following questions. (2.0 points) Television’s contribution to family life in the United states has been an equivocal one. For while it has indeed, kept the members of the family from dispersing, it has not served to bring them together. By dominating the time families spend together, it destroys the special quality that distinguishes one family from another, a quality that depends to a great extent on what a family does, what special rituals, games, recurrent jokes, familiar songs, and shared activities it accumulates. “Like the sorcerer of old” writes Urie Bronfenbrenner; “the television set casts its magic spell, freezing speech and action, turning the living into silent statues so long as the enchantment lasts. The primary danger of the television screen lies not so much in the behavior it produces – although there is danger there – as in the behavior it prevents: the talks, games, family festivities, and arguments through which much of the child’s learning takes place and through which character is formed. Turning on the television set can turn off the process that transforms children into people.” Trang 5/ 8
- Of course, families today still do special things together at times: go camping in the summer, go to the zoo on a nice Sunday, take various trips and expeditions. But the ordinary daily life together is diminished – that sitting around at the dinner table, that spontaneous taking up of an activity, those little games invented by children on the spur of the moment when there is nothing else to do, the scribbling, the chatting, the quarreling, all the things that form the fabric of a family that define a childhood. Instead, the children have their regular schedule of television programs and bedtime, and the parents have their peaceful dinner together. But surely the needs of adults are being better met than the needs of children, who are effectively shunted away and rendered untroublesome. If the family does not accumulate its backlog of shared experiences, shared everyday experiences that occur and recur and change and develop, then it is not likely to survive as anything other than a caretaking institution. 1. Which of the following best represents the author’s argument in the passage? A. Television has negative effects on family life. B. Television has advantages and disadvantages for children. C. Television should be more educational. D. Television teaches children to be violent. 2. The word that in the 1st paragraph refers to ___ A. contribution B. television C. special quality D. the time 3. Why is Urie Bronfenbrenner quoted in paragraph 2? A. To present a different point of view from that of the author. B. To provide an example of a television program that is harmful. C. To expand the author’s argument. D. To discuss the positive aspects of television. 4. The word freezing in the passage is closest in meaning to___ A. controlling B. halting C. dramatizing D. encouraging. 5. Urie Bronfenbrenner compares the television set to ___ A. statue B. an educator C. a family member D. a magician. 6. A child’s character is formed through all of the following EXCEPT ___. A. talks B. games C. family festivities D. peaceful dinners 7. The thing that “form the fabric of a family” in paragraph 3 are ___ A. special thing B. ordinary things C. television programs D. children. 8. The word it in the last paragraph refers to___ A. the television B. the family C. its backlog D.an institution. 9. According to the author, what distinguishes one family from another? A. Doing ordinary things together. B. Watching television together. C. Celebrating holidays together. D. Living together. 10. It can be inferred from the passage that a caretaking institution is one in which care is given___ A. charitably B. lovingly C. constantly D. impersonally. Trang 6/ 8
- III. Read the passage carefully and fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points) THE IMPORTANCE OF PLANTS Man has always depended on plants (1) ___ food and many other useful products. For this reason, farming is one of the world's most important industries. At first, (2) ___ man did not know how to plant seeds and raise crops. He (3) ___ wild fruits and vegetables where he found them. Then man discovered how to grow his own food. He planted seeds and waited for the crop to grow. For the first time, he could be reasonably sure of his food (4) ___. He could settle down and build shelters in the places (5) ___ he grew food. As populations began to increase, the demand for food became greater. Old-fashioned tools and farming methods were insufficient in (6) ___ the demand, so man cultivated more and more land and invented complicated machines to make his work easier. Tractors replaced horses and other farm animals. Scientists studied and (7) ___ with plants. They told farmers how to (8) ___ plant diseases, and how to grow bigger and better crops. Now one man, with a wide knowledge of plants and the (9) ___ of machines, can cultivate hundreds of acres. He can raise plants which did not originally grow in the soil or (10) ___ of his community PART FIVE: WRITING (5.0 POINTS) I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (1.75 points) 1. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect. But for his command ___. 2. Pamela isn't sorry she decided to move to Florida. Pamela has ___. 3. That restaurant is so dirty that no one wants to eat there. So ___. 4. He was unable to paint the gate of his house because of the heavy rain. The heavy rain made ___. 5. It was the weakness of the foundations that led to the collapse of the building. If it ___. 6. They tried hard so that they would pass the exam. With ___. 7. No one stands a chance of beating Mansell in this year’s championship. It’s a foregone ___. II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given without changing it in any way. (1.25 points) 1. They must accept the fact that they haven’t made much progress in the struggle against poverty. (TERMS) ___ 2. Edna didn’t feel like going to the party. (MOOD) ___ Trang 7/ 8
- 3. Freda was afraid the neighbours would despise her for not having a washing machine. (LOOK) ___ 4. She found the photographs when she was cleaning her room (CAME) ___ 5. Ella is just working here temporarily. (BEING) ___ III. Essay writing (2.0 points) With the advent of the Internet, human life has been improved a great deal. However, many people claim that the Internet has several negative impacts on family life. Do you agree or disagree with this idea? Write an essay of about 250 words to express your idea. HẾT Trang 8/ 8